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SSB HISTOLOGY Nervous Tissue

SELF-ASSESSMENT QUESTIONS

NOTE: The following questions are designed for introductory drill.  They do not necessarily represent the quality of questions which will appear on the Unit evaluation.

Set I a.  Questions 1-36, Nerve cells, multiple choice.
Set I b.  Questions 37-81, Nerve cells, true or false.
Set I c.  Questions 82-111, Nervous tissue (includes CNS, glia, choroid plexus, and meninges).
     [reference:  http://www.siumed.edu/~dking2/ssb/neuron.htm]

Set II.  Questions 1-29, Skin.
     [reference:  http://www.siumed.edu/~dking2/intro/skin.htm]

Set III.  Questions 1-19, Muscle.
     [reference:  http://www.siumed.edu/~dking2/ssb/muscle.htm]

Set IV.  Questions 1-31, Skeletal tissues (bone and cartilage).
     [reference:  http://www.siumed.edu/~dking2/ssb/skeleton.htm]

Set V.  Questions 1-32 Eye
     [reference:  http://www.siumed.edu/~dking2/ssb/eye.htm]

Set VI.  Questions 1-25, Ear.
     [reference:  http://www.siumed.edu/~dking2/ssb/ear.htm]

Mp3 files, with questions and answers read aloud, have been recorded by M. Campbell (SIUC Anthropology student) for some question sets: 
     nerve cells (multiple choice), nerve cells (true-false), nervous tissue, eye, ear.


QUESTION SET Ia.  Nerve cells.  Multiple choice.     [reference:  http://www.siumed.edu/~dking2/ssb/neuron.htm]

Point to an answer.  Green color and bold indicates "CORRECT."  Red color and italics indicates "Wrong answer."  (NOTE:  In cases where all of the responses are correct, only "all of the above" will be indicated as correct.)

     [An mp3 file of this question set has been recorded by SIUC Anthropology student M. Campbell.]
  

  1. Another name for nerve cell is:
    1. ganglion
    2. dendrite
    3. axon
    4. neuron
    5. nerve
       
  2. The portion of a nerve cell which contains the nucleus and most of the metabolic machinery is called the:
    1. axon
    2. dendrite
    3. synapse
    4. cell body
    5. Nissl body
       
  3. The terms "soma" and "perikaryon" refer to the:
    1. axon
    2. dendrite
    3. synapse
    4. cell body
    5. Nissl body
       
  4. A site of communication between neurons is called a:
    1. axon
    2. dendrite
    3. synapse
    4. cell body
    5. Nissl body
       
  5. The principal region of the neuron for receiving information is the:
    1. dendrite
    2. axon
    3. myelin
    4. ganglion
    5. nucleus
       
  6. Information is carried away from the neuron cell body by the:
    1. dendrite
    2. axon
    3. myelin
    4. ganglion
    5. nucleus
       
  7. A resting membrane potential based on high internal K+ concentration, high external Na+ concentration, and differential permeability to these ions, occurs:
    1. along axon membrane.
    2. along dendrite membrane.
    3. along neuron cell body membrane.
    4. at postsynaptic membrane.
    5. all of the above
       
  8. The element of a synapse which contains neurotransmitter prior to release is called the:
    1. synaptic cleft
    2. presynaptic membrane
    3. postsynaptic membrane
    4. synaptic vesicle
    5. dendritic spine
       
  9. The element of a synapse which contains neurotransmitter receptors is called the:
    1. node of Ranvier
    2. presynaptic membrane
    3. postsynaptic membrane
    4. synaptic vesicle
    5. synaptic cleft
       
  10. The element of a synapse which contains binding sites for synaptic vesicles is called the:
    1. node of Ranvier
    2. presynaptic membrane
    3. postsynaptic membrane
    4. dendritic spine
    5. synaptic cleft
       
  11. The element of a synapse across which neurotransmitter diffuses during synaptic transmission is called the:
    1. node of Ranvier
    2. presynaptic membrane
    3. postsynaptic membrane
    4. dendritic spine
    5. synaptic cleft
       
  12. The distance which neurotransmitter must diffuse to cross a synaptic cleft is approximately:
    1. 30 nm
    2. 300 nm
    3. 3 µm
    4. 30 µm
    5. 300 µm
       
  13. Synaptic vesicles are most commonly located:
    1. within the axon hillock.
    2. within presynaptic axon terminals.
    3. within the synaptic cleft.
    4. within postsynaptic dendrites.
    5. all of the above
       
  14. The normal site for initiation of a neuronal action potential is the:
    1. dendritic spine.
    2. axon hillock.
    3. axon terminal.
    4. two of the above
    5. all of the above
       
  15. The common term "nerve fibers" refers to:
    1. actin and myosin
    2. axons
    3. neurofilaments
    4. microtubules
    5. nerves
       
  16. Movement of materials between nerve cell bodies and distant axon sites is called:
    1. chromatolysis
    2. synaptic transmission
    3. saltatory conduction
    4. active propagation
    5. axoplasmic transport
       
  17. Structures extending the length of the axon which provide the substrate for axoplasmic transport are the:
    1. Nissl bodies
    2. microtubules
    3. synaptic vesicles
    4. nodes of Ranvier
    5. Schwann cells
       
  18. Nissl bodies consist of:
    1. clusters of synaptic vesicles.
    2. microtubules and microfilaments.
    3. rough endoplasmic reticulum and ribosomes.
    4. Golgi bodies.
    5. lysosomes and lipofuscin granules.
       
  19. Within a typical neuron, mitochondria may occur within:
    1. somata.
    2. axons.
    3. dendrites.
    4. axon terminals.
    5. all of the above
       
  20. A bundle of axons in the peripheral nervous system is called a:
    1. nerve
    2. ganglion
    3. nucleus
    4. tract or commissure
    5. column
       
  21. A bundle of axons in the central nervous system is called a:
    1. nerve
    2. ganglion
    3. nucleus
    4. tract or commissure
    5. plexus
       
  22. Peripheral axons are ensheathed by a cell type called the:
    1. ganglion cell
    2. oligodendroglia
    3. astrocyte
    4. Schwann cell
    5. fibroblast
       
  23. Schwann cell membrane wrapped many times around an individual axon is called:
    1. axolemma
    2. myelin
    3. proteoglycan
    4. choroid plexus
    5. node of Ranvier
       
  24. The presence of myelin decreases the:
    1. electrical resistance of the axon membrane.
    2. electrical capacitance of the axon membrane.
    3. conduction velocity of the axon membrane.
    4. tensile strength of the axon.
    5. ability of the axon to regenerate after injury.
       
  25. The gap between two adjacent myelin segments along an axon is called the:
    1. axolemma
    2. internode
    3. axonal cleft
    4. choroid plexus
    5. node of Ranvier
       
  26. Which of the following ranges encompasses the length of a typical myelin segment (internode), between two nodes of Ranvier?
    1. 20 to 200 nm
    2. 0.2 to 2 µm
    3. 2 to 20 µm
    4. 20 to 200 µm
    5. 0.2 to 2 mm
       
  27. Which of the following ranges encompasses the diameter of most myelinated axons?
    1. 10 to 200 nm
    2. 0.1 to 2 µm
    3. 1 to 20 µm
    4. 10 to 200 µm
    5. 0.1 to 2 mm
       
  28. Peripheral axons which are enveloped by Schwann cell cytoplasm but are not wrapped by several layers of membrane are called:
    1. motor nerve fibers.
    2. myelinated nerve fibers.
    3. unmyelinated nerve fibers.
    4. sensory nerve fibers.
    5. postganglionic nerve fibers.
       
  29. A group of nerve cell bodies located outside the central nervous system is called a:
    1. nerve
    2. ganglion
    3. nucleus
    4. column
    5. commissure
       
  30. Small cells closely associated with neurons in peripheral ganglia may be called:
    1. satellite cells
    2. pyramidal cells
    3. postganglionic cells
    4. autonomic cells
    5. preganglionic cells
       
  31. Cell bodies of the peripheral receptor neurons associated with spinal sensory nerve roots are located:
    1. near the peripheral receptor organ (in skin or muscle).
    2. in spinal gray matter.
    3. in dorsal root ganglia.
    4. two of the above.
    5. all of the above
       
  32. Cell bodies of motor neurons associated with spinal motor nerve roots may be located:
    1. within the epimysium of the muscle they innervate.
    2. in spinal gray matter.
    3. in dorsal root ganglia.
    4. at any point along a motor nerve.
    5. in the cerebral cortex.
       
  33. Dorsal root ganglia contain:
    1. cell bodies of peripheral skin and muscle receptor neurons.
    2. spinal motor neurons.
    3. sympathetic neurons.
    4. parasympathetic neurons.
    5. all of the above
       
  34. White matter appears white because of:
    1. the absence of blood vessels.
    2. the absence of glial cells.
    3. the presence of many collagen fibers.
    4. the presence of many myelinated axons.
    5. more than one of the above
       
  35. Fresh, living gray matter is colored:
    1. gray, of course.
    2. black.
    3. white.
    4. pink.
    5. all of the above
       
  36. In sectioned and stained specimens of nervous tissue, what could the color of white matter be?
    1. White, of course.
    2. Black.
    3. It depends on the stain. Read the slide label or figure legend.
    4. Any of the above.

QUESTION SET I b.  Nerve cells.  TRUE or FALSE.      [reference:  http://www.siumed.edu/~dking2/ssb/neuron.htm]

These are not subtle or tricky statements; each statement either is boldly false or else, within the limits of any brief statement, is true. Parenthetical comments and phrases set off by commas are intended only to clarify or illuminate, not to mislead. Try to revise any false statement so that it will become a CORRECT statement about the same subject.

Point to an answer.  Green color indicates the CORRECT choice.  Red color indicates the incorrect choice.

     [An mp3 file of this question set has been recorded by SIUC Anthropology student M. Campbell.]
  

  1. Action potentials travel only along myelinated axons; unmyelinated axons do not support action potentials.
  2. Action potentials travel fastest along unmyelinated axons.
  3. Action potentials normally travel from the axon terminal toward the cell body.
  4. Unmyelinated axons conduct more slowly than myelinated axons.
  5. Efferent axons from alpha motor neurons to extrafusal muscles fibers and afferent axons from muscle spindle receptors are among the largest myelinated axons in peripheral nerves.
  6. Unmyelinated axons generally have a smaller diameter than myelinated axons.
  7. Meissner's and Pacinian corpuscles are usually served by myelinated axons.
  8. Axons from receptors for slow, burning pain are typically small and unmyelinated.
  9. Myelinated axons do not usually enter gray matter.
  10. Dendrites receive synapses from the axon terminals of other neurons; receptor molecules for neurotransmitters are found on the surface of dendritic membranes.
  11. Dendrites are found in gray matter.
  12. Graded postsynaptic potentials occur along dendrites when membrane permeability is altered by neurotransmitter release.
  13. Among the features which distinguish axons from cell bodies and dendrites is the absence of ribosomes from axons and axon terminals.
  14. For long-axon neurons (those whose axons leave the gray matter location where the cell body resides), the volume of axoplasm will usually exceed the volume of cytoplasm in the cell body.
  15. Neurons with large rather than small cell bodies usually give rise to relatively long rather than local axons.
  16. White matter in the central nervous system consists of axon tracts with abundant myelin, where neuron cell bodies and dendrites are scarce or absent.
  17. A single Schwann cell forms myelin around one and only one axon, while a single oligodendroglial cell forms myelin around several separate axons.
  18. Myelinated axons found in white matter usually begin in gray matter and terminate in gray matter.
  19. During an action potential, internal Na+ concentration rises until it exceeds the external Na+ concentration.
  20. During an inhibitory synaptic potential (IPSP), external K+ concentration rises until it exceeds the internal K+ concentration.
  21. The sodium pump is inactivated during membrane potential changes.
  22. Increasing permeability to K+ (increasing K+ conductance) normally depolarizes the cell membrane.
  23. Increasing permeability to Na+ (increasing Na+ conductance) normally depolarizes the cell membrane.
  24. Rapid axoplasmic transport involves movement along microtubules as the primary mechanism, with ATP from mitochondria supplying the energy.
  25. After damage to a mixed peripheral nerve, motor axons initially degenerate distal to the site of injury.
  26. After damage to a mixed peripheral nerve, sensory axons initially degenerate proximal to the site of injury.
  27. After damage to a mixed peripheral nerve, Schwann cell bodies remain alive, aligned within the nerve.
  28. After damage to a mixed peripheral nerve, the time before normal function may be restored depends on the length of axon distal to injury.
  29. Neuron cell bodies respond to axonal injury with observable changes called chromatolysis.
  30. Motor axons cannot regenerate after peripheral nerve injury.
  31. After peripheral nerve injury, both motor and sensory axons can regenerate to reinnervate their targets provided that the segment proximal to the site of injury is aligned with the (degenerated) distal route.
  32. Damaged axons in the central nervous system usually do not regenerate to reestablish normal contacts.
  33. The longest axons may be over a meter in length.
  34. The thickest axons may be over 50 µm in diameter.
  35. Epineurium and perineurium are names for the connective tissue which ensheaths peripheral nerves and axon bundles within nerves.
  36. Endoneurium is the name for the delicate collagen framework which supports axons within a peripheral nerve.
  37. The many nuclei which may be found within peripheral nerves belong to Schwann cells and fibroblasts.
  38. Some of the nuclei found within peripheral nerves belong to cell bodies of first order sensory neurons.
  39. Myelin is an extracellular, secretory product of Schwann cells.
  40. The composition of myelin is primarily lipid with some protein, similar to other cell membranes.
  41. Nodes of Ranvier are sites where myelin is absent along an axon, between adjacent Schwann cells.
  42. In a neuroanatomical section stained with Weigert's myelin stain, myelin appears black or deep purple.
  43. Nodes of Ranvier are sites where action potentials are regenerated during saltatory conduction.
  44. The cell bodies for peripheral sensory receptors (e.g., touch receptors, muscle spindles) are located in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord.
  45. The cell bodies for motor neurons innervating segmental musculature are located in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord.


QUESTION SET Ic.  Nervous tissue (includes CNS, glia, choroid plexus, and meninges).  Multiple choice.     
      [reference:  http://www.siumed.edu/~dking2/ssb/neuron.htm]

Point to an answer.  Green color and bold indicates "CORRECT."  Red color and italics indicates "Wrong answer."  (NOTE:  In cases where all of the responses are correct, only "all of the above" will be indicated as correct.)

     [An mp3 file of this question set has been recorded by SIUC Anthropology student M. Campbell.]
  

  1. A typical peripheral mixed nerve includes all of the following EXCEPT:
    1. motor axons.
    2. connective tissue of the perineurium and/or endoneurium.
    3. Schwann cells.
    4. sensory axons.
    5. astrocytes.
       
  2. In electron micrographs of central nervous tissue, small (40-60 nm) vesicles clustered intracellularly near thickened neuronal membranes indicate:
    1. sites of synaptic transmission.
    2. the presence of a blood-brain barrier.
    3. myelin formation.
    4. Nissl bodies.
    5. astrocyte end-feet.
       
  3. Which of the following glial cell types is believed to be functionally related to macrophages?
    1. astroglia
    2. oligodendroglia
    3. microglia
    4. Schwann cells
    5. ependymal cells
       
  4. Which of the following cell types forms myelin in the central nervous system?
    1. astroglia
    2. oligodendroglia
    3. microglia
    4. Schwann cells
    5. ependymal cells
       
  5. Which of the following cell types forms myelin in the peripheral nervous system?
    1. astroglia
    2. oligodendroglia
    3. microglia
    4. Schwann cells
    5. ependymal cells
       
  6. Dura mater consists of:
    1. loose connective tissue with CSF as ground substance.
    2. dense fibrous connective tissue.
    3. white matter.
    4. gray matter.
    5. a thin layer of cells and collagen adhering to outer surface of the brain.
       
  7. The arachnoid layer of the meninges consists of:
    1. loose connective tissue with CSF as ground substance.
    2. dense fibrous connective tissue.
    3. white matter.
    4. gray matter.
    5. a thin layer of cells and collagen adhering to outer surface of the brain.
       
  8. Pia mater consists of:
    1. loose connective tissue with CSF as ground substance.
    2. dense fibrous connective tissue.
    3. white matter.
    4. gray matter.
    5. a thin layer of cells and collagen adhering to outer surface of the brain.
       
  9. The outermost layer of the brain, immediately beneath the pia mater, consists of:
    1. glia limitans (astrocyte endfeet) .
    2. fibroblasts.
    3. collagen.
    4. white matter.
    5. gray matter.
       
  10. Which of the following cell types helps regulate the interstitial environment of central nervous tissue, serving as a buffer between nerve cells and capillaries?
    1. astroglia
    2. oligodendroglia
    3. microglia
    4. Schwann cells
    5. ependymal cells
       
  11. Which structure is principally responsible for the blood-brain barrier?
    1. fenestrated capillary endothelium
    2. continuous capillary endothelium
    3. endothelial basement membrane
    4. astrocyte foot processes
    5. pia mater
       
  12. Which the of the following cell types lines the central canal of the spinal cord and the ventricular system of the brain?
    1. astroglia
    2. oligodendroglia
    3. microglia
    4. Schwann cells
    5. ependymal cells
       
  13. Choroid plexus consists of:
    1. dense regular connective tissue.
    2. white matter.
    3. gray matter.
    4. ependymal tissue and associated capillaries.
    5. arachnoid granulations.
       
  14. Choroid plexus is NOT found:
    1. in the lateral ventricles.
    2. in the third ventricle.
    3. in the fourth ventricle.
    4. in the central canal of the spinal cord.
    5. Choroid plexus is found in ALL of the above locations.
       
  15. Compared to blood, normal cerebrospinal fluid contains:
    1. more leukocytes.
    2. much less protein.
    3. much higher levels of potassium and calcium.
    4. much lower sodium levels.
    5. much more glucose.
       
  16. Cerebrospinal fluid is actively secreted by ependymal cells of the:
    1. arachnoid villi.
    2. stria vascularis.
    3. pia mater.
    4. ciliary processes.
    5. choroid plexus.
       
  17. Cerebrospinal fluid drains away from the subarachnoid space through connective tissue channels called:
    1. canal of Schlemm.
    2. arachnoid granulations.
    3. ciliary processes.
    4. endolymphatic ducts.
    5. stria vascularis.
       
  18. Arachnoid granulations perforate the:
    1. pia mater.
    2. choroid plexus.
    3. glia limitans.
    4. dura of the tentorium.
    5. dura of the sagittal sinus.
       
  19. An imbalance between production and drainage of cerebrospinal fluid can cause:
    1. Ménière's disease.
    2. astigmatism.
    3. presbyopia.
    4. glaucoma.
    5. hydrocephalus.
       
  20. Pyramidal cells (neurons whose cell bodies have a characteristic, pyramidal shape) are characteristic of the:
    1. retina.
    2. cerebral cortex.
    3. cerebellar cortex.
    4. ventral horn of spinal cord.
    5. dorsal horn of spinal cord.
       
  21. Purkinje cells (neurons with large cell bodies and densely-branched, flattened dendritic trees) are characteristic of the:
    1. retina.
    2. cerebral cortex.
    3. cerebellar cortex.
    4. ventral horn of spinal cord.
    5. dorsal horn of spinal cord.
       
  22. In the cerebellar cortex, which layer contains Purkinje cell bodies?
    1. granule cell layer
    2. Purkinje cell layer
    3. molecular layer
       
  23. In the cerebellar cortex, which layer contains granule cell bodies?
    1. granule cell layer
    2. Purkinje cell layer
    3. molecular layer
       
  24. In the cerebellar cortex, which layer contains most of the length of the Purkinje cell dendrites?
    1. granule cell layer
    2. Purkinje cell layer
    3. molecular layer
       
  25. In the cerebellar cortex, which layer contains most of the length of granule cell axons?
    1. granule cell layer
    2. Purkinje cell layer
    3. molecular layer
       
  26. The largest cell bodies in the ventral (anterior) horn of the spinal cord belong:
    1. primary sensory neurons.
    2. lower motor neurons.
    3. upper motor neurons.
    4. astrocytes.
    5. oligodendrocytes.
       
  27. What region of the nervous system is described by the following?
    Generally described as having six layers, the principal efferent axons of this region arise from cells located located in layer 5.  These large neurons are characterized by a distinctive apical dendrite that extends across layers 1 through 4, as well as by several basal dendrites in layers 5 and 6.  Specific input arrives along axons which ramify extensively in layer 4.  Many other neuronal cell types, whose cell bodies come in a variety of shapes and whose axons make local synaptic connections, characterize layers 2, 3, and 6.
    1. retina.
    2. cerebral cortex.
    3. cerebellar cortex.
    4. ventral horn of spinal cord.
    5. dorsal horn of spinal cord.
       
  28. What region of the nervous system is described by the following?
    This region displays a conspicuously layered appearance consisting of a relatively thick outer "molecular" layer in which neuronal cell bodies are extremely uncommon, an inner layer densely packed with very small cell bodies, and a thin intervening layer consisting of the large cell bodies of the cells that give rise to the region's principal efferent axons.
    1. retina.
    2. cerebral cortex.
    3. cerebellar cortex.
    4. ventral horn of spinal cord.
    5. dorsal horn of spinal cord.
       
  29. What region of the nervous system is described by the following?
    Three distinct layers of cell bodies, called the "outer nuclear layer", the "inner nuclear layer", and the "ganglion cell layer" are separated by layers in which local synaptic contacts occur.  Efferent axons from cell bodies in the ganglion cell layer project to synaptic contacts in the lateral geniculate body and the tectum.
    1. retina.
    2. cerebral cortex.
    3. cerebellar cortex.
    4. ventral horn of spinal cord.
    5. dorsal horn of spinal cord.
       
  30. What region of the nervous system is described by the following?
    The principal efferent neurons of this region receive excitatory input from two sources:  Afferent "climbing fiber" axons, from neurons in the inferior olive, each synapse directly onto several of the principal cells.  Transmitter release at each such synapse exerts a powerful excitatory effect on activity of the postsynaptic neuron.  In contrast, vast numbers of afferent "mossy fibers" axons, from a variety of distant sources, provide indirect input via synapses onto the dendrites of local interneurons.  "Parallel fiber" axons from these small interneurons then converge (with a convergence ratio on the order of 105 or 106 to one), onto the principal efferent cells, with each such synapse exerting only a very small excitatory effect so that many postsynaptic potentials must summate spatially and temporally to influence activity in the principal cells.
    1. retina.
    2. cerebral cortex.
    3. cerebellar cortex.
    4. ventral horn of spinal cord.
    5. dorsal horn of spinal cord.
       

 


QUESTION SET II.  Skin.  Multiple choice.     [reference:  http://www.siumed.edu/~dking2/intro/skin.htm]

Point to an answer.  Green color and bold indicates "CORRECT."  Red color and italics indicates "Wrong answer."  (NOTE:  In cases where all of the responses are correct, only "all of the above" will be indicated as correct.)

  1. The epithelial layer of skin is:
    1. epidermis.
    2. dermis.
    3. hypodermis.
    4. lamina propria.
    5. mucosa.
       
  2. The fibrous connective tissue layer of skin is:
    1. epidermis.
    2. dermis.
    3. hypodermis.
    4. lamina propria.
    5. mucosa.
       
  3. The loose, adipose connective tissue layer of skin is:
    1. epidermis.
    2. dermis.
    3. hypodermis.
    4. lamina propria.
    5. mucosa.
       
  4. Which connective tissue layer lies closest to the epidermis:
    1. reticular layer of dermis.
    2. papillary layer of dermis.
    3. hypodermis.
       
  5. The projections of dermis upward, indenting the bottom of the epidermis, are called:
    1. arrector pili.
    2. epidermal appendages.
    3. Meissner's corpuscles.
    4. dermal papillae.
    5. sweat ducts.
       
  6. Which type of encapsulated nerve ending is located in dermal papillae?
    1. Pacinian corpuscle.
    2. Meissner's corpuscle.
    3. free nerve ending.
    4. annulospiral ending.
    5. Merkel's corpuscle.
       
  7. Which type of encapsulated nerve ending consists of many concentric layers (like an onion) located deep in the dermis or hypodermis?
    1. Pacinian corpuscle.
    2. Meissner's corpuscle.
    3. free nerve ending.
    4. annulospiral ending.
    5. Merkel's corpuscle.
       
  8. Which of the following layers lies nearest the outer surface of the epidermis?
    1. stratum basale or stratum germinativum.
    2. stratum spinosum or stratum Malpighii.
    3. stratum granulosum.
    4. stratum lucidum.
    5. stratum corneum.
       
  9. Which of the following layers lies nearest the dermis?
    1. stratum basale or stratum germinativum.
    2. stratum spinosum or stratum Malpighii.
    3. stratum granulosum.
    4. stratum lucidum.
    5. stratum corneum.
       
  10. The basement membrane lies between:
    1. stratum basale and stratum spinosum.
    2. stratum spinosum and stratum granulosum.
    3. stratum granulosum and stratum corneum.
    4. epidermis and dermis.
    5. papillary and reticular layers of dermis.
       
  11. In which of the following layers does cell division normally occur?
    1. stratum basale or stratum germinativum.
    2. stratum spinosum or stratum Malpighii.
    3. stratum granulosum.
    4. stratum lucidum.
    5. stratum corneum.
       
  12. In which of the following layers do basophilic granules provide a distinct indication of the formation of a keratinized epithelium?
    1. stratum basale or stratum germinativum.
    2. stratum spinosum or stratum Malpighii.
    3. stratum granulosum.
    4. stratum lucidum.
    5. stratum corneum.
       
  13. The majority of cells comprising the epidermis are called:
    1. keratinocytes (or "prickle cells").
    2. melanocytes.
    3. Langerhans cells.
    4. Merkel cells.
    5. fibroblasts.
       
  14. The "prickles" which characterize keratinocytes (or "prickle cells") represent the location of:
    1. ribosomes.
    2. mitochondria.
    3. keratohyalin granules.
    4. lipofuscin.
    5. desmosomes.
       
  15. The most common cells in dermis are:
    1. keratinocytes (or "prickle cells").
    2. melanocytes.
    3. Langerhans cells.
    4. Merkel cells.
    5. fibroblasts.
       
  16. Which epidermal cell type is part of the immune system, with "antigen presenting" function?
    1. keratinocytes (or "prickle cells").
    2. melanocytes.
    3. Langerhans cells.
    4. Merkel cells.
    5. fibroblasts.
       
  17. Which epidermal cell type manufactures dark pigment?
    1. keratinocytes (or "prickle cells").
    2. melanocytes.
    3. Langerhans cells.
    4. Merkel cells.
    5. fibroblasts.
       
  18. Most of the melanin in the basal layer of the epidermis is located in which cell type?
    1. keratinocytes (or "prickle cells").
    2. melanocytes.
    3. Langerhans cells.
    4. Merkel cells.
    5. fibroblasts.
       
  19. Which epidermal cell type is closely associated with afferent nerve endings?
    1. keratinocytes (or "prickle cells").
    2. melanocytes.
    3. Langerhans cells.
    4. Merkel cells.
    5. fibroblasts.
       
  20. Embryonically, which epidermal cell type migrates into surface ectoderm from neural crest (and, perhaps encouraged by this migratory function, this cell type can form the most dangerously metastatic cancers)?
    1. keratinocytes (or "prickle cells").
    2. melanocytes.
    3. Langerhans cells.
    4. Merkel cells.
    5. fibroblasts.
       
  21. Which cell type is not normally found in the epidermis?
    1. keratinocytes (or "prickle cells").
    2. melanocytes.
    3. Langerhans cells.
    4. Merkel cells.
    5. fibroblasts.
       
  22. Which of the following consists of stratified (two-layered) cuboidal epithelium?
    1. sebaceous gland.
    2. hair follicle.
    3. duct of sweat gland.
    4. secretory portion of sweat gland.
    5. arrector pili.
       
  23. Which of the following is NOT an "epidermal appendage" (i.e., NOT comprised of epithelial tissue)?
    1. sebaceous gland.
    2. hair follicle.
    3. duct of sweat gland.
    4. secretory portion of sweat gland.
    5. arrector pili.
       
  24. Which of the following typically includes dead cells with pyknotic nuclei?
    1. sebaceous gland.
    2. hair follicle.
    3. duct of sweat gland.
    4. secretory portion of sweat gland.
    5. arrector pili.
       
  25. Which of the following includes inconspicuous myoepithelial cells?
    1. sebaceous gland.
    2. hair follicle.
    3. duct of sweat gland.
    4. secretory portion of sweat gland.
    5. hair shaft.
       
  26. Which layer is exceptionally thick in so-called "thick skin" (i.e., palmar and plantar skin)?
    1. epidermis.
    2. dermis.
    3. hypodermis.
       
  27. Which structures are present in "thick skin" (i.e., palmar and plantar skin)?
    1. sebaceous glands.
    2. hair follicles.
    3. arrector pili.
    4. sweat glands.
       
  28. Which cell type in the dermis is most closely associated with stimulating an inflammatory response, by secreting histamine and other chemical signals?
    1. fibroblast.
    2. adipocyte.
    3. macrophage.
    4. lymphocyte.
    5. mast cell.
       
  29. Which cell type normally migrates through dermal (and other) connective tissues (coming in via blood vessels, leaving via lymphatic channels)?
    1. fibroblast.
    2. adipocyte.
    3. macrophage.
    4. lymphocyte.
    5. mast cell.
       


QUESTION SET III.  Muscle.  Multiple choice.     [reference:  http://www.siumed.edu/~dking2/ssb/muscle.htm]

Point to an answer.  Green color and bold indicates "CORRECT."  Red color and italics indicates "Wrong answer."  (NOTE:  In cases where all of the responses are correct, only "all of the above" will be indicated as correct.)

  1. Neuromuscular junctions are located:
    1. midway along the length of the muscle fiber.
    2. spaced at regular intervals along each muscle fiber.
    3. spaced at irregular intervals along each muscle fiber.
    4. near the proximal end of a muscle fiber.
    5. near the distal end of a muscle fiber.
       
  2. The many nuclei of a skeletal muscle fiber are located:
    1. midway along the length of the muscle fiber.
    2. spaced at regular intervals along each muscle fiber.
    3. spaced at irregular intervals along each muscle fiber.
    4. near the proximal end of a muscle fiber.
    5. near the distal end of a muscle fiber.
       
  3. A skeletal muscle fiber is innervated by:
    1. one and only one motor axon.
    2. one slow-conducting and one fast-conducting motor axon.
    3. several motor axons, which may be either slow- or fast-conducting.
       
  4. How many skeletal muscle fibers comprise a "motor unit"? (Equivalently: How many skeletal muscle fibers are innervated by a single motor axon?)
    1. one and only one.
    2. many.
    3. any number from one to many, depending on the muscle.
       
  5. Which type of muscle typically has each motor axon innervating the fewest muscle fibers?
    1. ocular muscles.
    2. postural muscles.
       
  6. Which type of muscle typically has each motor axon innervating the most muscle fibers?
    1. ocular muscles.
    2. postural muscles.
       
  7. Skeletal muscle fibers are best described as:
    1. multinucleate "cellular" units.
    2. subcellular bundles of contractile filaments.
    3. motor axons.
    4. long protein molecules.
       
  8. Myofibrils are best described as:
    1. multinucleate "cellular" units.
    2. subcellular bundles of contractile filaments.
    3. motor axons.
    4. long protein molecules.
       
  9. In skeletal muscle fibers, mitochondria and sarcoplasmic reticulum are located:
    1. within myofibrils.
    2. between (surrounding) individual myofibrils.
    3. only around the periphery of each fiber.
    4. concentrated near neuromuscular junctions.
       
  10. The electrical signal of an action potential is conveyed into the interior of each muscle fiber by:
    1. sarcomeres.
    2. transverse tubules.
    3. sarcoplasmic reticulum
    4. Z-lines.
    5. thick filaments.
       
  11. The distance between two Z-lines is equilivalent to the length of the:
    1. A band
    2. H band
    3. I band
    4. M line
    5. sarcomere
       
  12. The sense organ most closely associated with stretch reflexes (e.g., knee jerk) is the:
    1. Meissner's corpuscle.
    2. Pacinian corpuscle.
    3. muscle spindle.
    4. Golgi tendon organ.
    5. free nerve ending.
       
  13. Z-lines represent attachment sites for:
    1. thick filaments (myosin)
    2. thin filaments (actin)
    3. t-tubules
    4. sarcoplasmic reticulum
    5. neuromuscular junctions
       
  14. The Z-line runs through the middle of the:
    1. A band
    2. H band
    3. I band
    4. M line
       
  15. Which structure typically stains dark (anisotropic to polarized light) and occupies a region midway between neighboring Z-lines?
    1. A band
    2. H band
    3. I band
    4. M line
    5. sarcomere
       
  16. The encapsulated structure which contains intrafusal muscle fibers, annulospiral nerve endings, and efferent nerve endings is the:
    1. Meissner's corpuscle.
    2. Pacinian corpuscle.
    3. muscle spindle.
    4. Golgi tendon organ.
    5. motor end plate.
       
  17. Which one of the following structures of skeletal muscle is defined by the length of the thick (myosin) filaments?
    1. A band
    2. H band
    3. I band
    4. M line
    5. Z line
       
  18. About how long is a sarcomere? (In other words, the transverse banding pattern along striated muscle repeats at intervals of about how many micrometers?)
    1. 0.2 µm
    2. 2 µm
    3. 20 µm
    4. 200 µm
    5. 2 mm
       
  19. A muscle biopsy characteristic for Duchenne muscular dystrophy would reveal:
    1. chromatolysis (loss of Nissl bodies) in motor neuron cell bodies.
    2. absence or degeneration of myelin along motor axons.
    3. uniform shrinkage of most muscle fibers.
    4. marked variation in muscle fiber diameter, with both large and abnormally small fibers.
    5. normal appearance of muscle and motor axons.


QUESTION SET IV.  Skeletal tissues (cartilage and bone).  Multiple choice.     [reference:  http://www.siumed.edu/~dking2/ssb/skeleton.htm]

Point to an answer.  Green color and bold indicates "CORRECT."  Red color and italics indicates "Wrong answer."  (NOTE:  In cases where all of the responses are correct, only "all of the above" will be indicated as correct.)

 

  1. The term "connective tissue matrix" refers to:
    1. fibroblasts.
    2. white blood cells.
    3. nerves and blood vessels.
    4. extracellular fibers and ground substance.
    5. macrophages, mast cells, and adipocytes.
       
  2. In ordinary connective tissue, the predominant component of ground substance is:
    1. collagen.
    2. elastin.
    3. fibrin.
    4. hyaluronic acid.
    5. water.
       
  3. Which connective tissue component is characterized by high tensile strength and flexibility?
    1. collagen
    2. elastin
    3. glycosaminoglycan
    4. fibroblasts
    5. lipid
       
  4. Which type of connective tissue is avascular and further characterized by ground substance in the form of a firm, resilient solid with a high proportion of glycosaminoglycans and with cells isolated in lacunae?
    1. adipose tissue
    2. tendon
    3. cartilage
    4. bone
    5. areolar tissue
       
  5. Which type of connective tissue is highly vascular, with mineralized matrix consisting of collagen fibers embedded in calcium phosphate (hydroxyapatite), and with cells located individually in lacunae?
    1. adipose tissue
    2. tendon
    3. cartilage
    4. bone
    5. areolar tissue
       
  6. In ordinary connective tissue, the cells which secrete collagen and elastin are called:
    1. fibroblasts.
    2. chondroblasts.
    3. osteoblasts.
    4. osteoclasts.
    5. osteocytes.
       
  7. Cells which secrete the components of cartilage matrix are called:
    1. fibroblasts.
    2. chondroblasts.
    3. osteoblasts.
    4. osteoclasts.
    5. osteocytes.
       
  8. Cells which secrete the components of bone matrix are called:
    1. fibroblasts.
    2. chondroblasts.
    3. osteoblasts.
    4. osteoclasts.
    5. osteocytes.
       
  9. In bone and cartilage, a small space that contains an individual cell is called a/an:
    1. osteon.
    2. Haversian canal.
    3. matrix element.
    4. lacuna.
    5. lamellae.
       
  10. Resting cells within cartilage lacunae are called:
    1. fibrocytes.
    2. fibroblasts.
    3. chondroblasts.
    4. chondrocytes.
    5. osteocytes.
       
  11. Resting cells within bony lacunae are called:
    1. fibrocytes.
    2. fibroblasts.
    3. chondroblasts.
    4. chondrocytes.
    5. osteocytes.
       
  12. In bone, the fine channels which interconnect adjacent lacunae are called:
    1. osteons.
    2. Haversian canals.
    3. canaliculi.
    4. lacunae.
    5. lamellae.
       
  13. In bone, a longitudinal channel containing a blood vessel is called a/an:
    1. osteon.
    2. Haversian canal.
    3. matrix element.
    4. lacuna.
    5. canaliculus.
       
  14. The thin layers of matrix which comprise solid bone are called:
    1. osteons.
    2. Haversian canals.
    3. matrix elements.
    4. lacunae.
    5. lamellae.
       
  15. A Haversian canal together with its encircling lamellae is called a/an:
    1. osteon (or Haversian system).
    2. Haversian canal.
    3. matrix element.
    4. lacuna.
    5. canaliculus.
       
  16. Cells which remove bone matrix during remodelling are called:
    1. fibroblasts.
    2. chondroblasts.
    3. osteoblasts.
    4. osteoclasts.
    5. osteocytes.
       
  17. Bone formation within a pre-existing cartilage model is called:
    1. intramembranous bone formation.
    2. extramembraneous bone formation.
    3. endochondral bone formation.
    4. trabecular bone formation.
    5. cancellous bone formation.
       
  18. Bone formation without a pre-existing cartilage model is called:
    1. intramembranous bone formation.
    2. extramembraneous bone formation.
    3. endochondral bone formation.
    4. trabecular bone formation.
    5. cancellous bone formation.
       
  19. Bone marrow consists of:
    1. hemopoietic tissue and adipocytes.
    2. collagen.
    3. ordinary loose connective tissue.
    4. mucus connective tissue.
    5. soft cartilage.
       
  20. Which of the following is characterized by several nuclei per cell?
    1. osteocyte
    2. osteoblast
    3. osteoclast
    4. chondrocyte
    5. chondroblast
       
  21. The activity of osteoclasts is stimulated, increasing blood calcium levels, by secretion from the:
    1. thyroid follicles.
    2. adrenal cortex.
    3. parathyroid.
    4. thyroid parafollicular cells (C cells).
    5. neurohypophysis.
       
  22. The activity of osteoclasts is inhibited, decreasing blood calcium levels, by secretion from the:
    1. thyroid follicles.
    2. adrenal cortex.
    3. parathyroid.
    4. thyroid parafollicular cells (C cells).
    5. neurohypophysis.
       
  23. Interstitial lamellae represent:
    1. layers of bone deposited in the spaces remaining after primary osteon formation.
    2. remnants of former osteons that have been altered by bone remodeling.
    3. smooth layers of bone on the surfaces of joints.
    4. layers of bone formed by interstitial growth.
    5. layers of cartilage formed by interstitial growth.
       
  24. Elongation of long bones is accomplished by growth at the:
    1. epiphyseal plate.
    2. diaphysis.
    3. metaphysis.
    4. periosteum.
    5. cement lines.
       
  25. Which type of cartilage is found in the tracheal rings and articular surface of bones and is the precursor of bone in the developing skeleton?
    1. fibrocartilage
    2. hyaline cartilage
    3. elastic cartilage
       
  26. Which type of cartilage is found in intervertebral disks and the pubic symphysis?
    1. fibrocartilage
    2. hyaline cartilage
    3. elastic cartilage
       
  27. In the restructuring of the skeleton, bone remodeling:
    1. follows a cycle in which bone formation alternates with resorption.
    2. occurs exclusively in adult bone.
    3. occurs independently of soft tissue growth and external forces.
    4. only occurs at the epiphyses of long bones.
    5. results in the formation of cement lines.
       
  28. The term most nearly synonynous to "cancellous bone" is:
    1. dense bone.
    2. compact bone.
    3. lamellar bone.
    4. woven bone.
    5. spongy bone.
       
  29. The term most nearly synonynous to "dense bone" is:
    1. spongy bone.
    2. compact bone.
    3. lamellar bone.
    4. woven bone.
    5. cancellous bone.
       
  30. The term most nearly opposite to "lamellar bone" is:
    1. dense bone.
    2. compact bone.
    3. trabecular bone.
    4. woven bone.
    5. cancellous bone.
       
  31. In compact bone, osteocytes which are not adjacent to capillaries receive or exchange nutrients and metabolites by means of:
    1. processes contacting other osteocytes along canaliculi.
    2. lymph drainage through central (Haversian) canals.
    3. diffusion through the bony matrix.
    4. fenestrations in medullary vessels.
    5. active transport across the endosteum. .
       


QUESTION SET V.  Eye.  Multiple choice.     [reference:  http://www.siumed.edu/~dking2/ssb/eye.htm]

Point to an answer.  Green color and bold indicates "CORRECT."  Red color and italics indicates "Wrong answer."  (NOTE:  In cases where all of the responses are correct, only "all of the above" will be indicated as correct.)

     [An mp3 file of this question set has been recorded by SIUC Anthropology student M. Campbell.]

  1. The "white" of the eye is primarily:
    1. elastic tissue.
    2. epithelium.
    3. nervous tissue.
    4. collagen.
    5. adipose.
       
  2. The predominant solid component of the transparent cornea is:
    1. elastic tissue.
    2. epithelium.
    3. nervous tissue.
    4. collagen.
    5. adipose.
       
  3. The layer of eye which consists of dense fibrous connective tissue is the:
    1. sclera.
    2. choroid.
    3. retina.
       
  4. Substantia propria is the name for which tissue component of the cornea?
    1. epithelial tissue
    2. connective tissue
    3. nervous tissue.
    4. muscle tissue
       
  5. The layer of eye which is continuous with the substantia propria of the cornea is the:
    1. sclera.
    2. choroid.
    3. retina.
       
  6. In contrast with dermis of skin, the substantia propria of the cornea is notable for the absence of:
    1. a surface epithelium.
    2. collagen.
    3. fibroblasts.
    4. sensory nerve endings.
    5. blood vessels.
       
  7. What type of epithelium forms the outer surface of the cornea?
    1. simple squamousepithelium
    2. simple columnar epithelium.
    3. simple cuboidal epithelium.
    4. keratinized stratified squamous epithelium.
    5. non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium.
       
  8. The layer of cuboidal cells which forms the innermost surface of the cornea is called:
    1. corneal epithelium
    2. corneal endothelium
    3. pigmented epithelium
    4. substantial propria.
    5. Decemet's membrane
       
  9. Which feature of the cornea is most closely related to the fact that surgical transplants of corneal tissue are relatively easy between unrelated individuals?
    1. non-keratinized epithelium
    2. regularly-arranged collagen layers
    3. transparency
    4. ectodermal origin
    5. absence of blood vessels (and associated immune cells)
       
  10. The layer of eye which consists of loose connective tissue enriched with melanocytes is the:
    1. sclera.
    2. choroid.
    3. retina.
       
  11. The layer of the eye which continues anteriorly to form the visible portion of the iris is the:
    1. sclera
    2. choroid
    3. retina
       
  12. The iris is composed of several tissue types.  Most of the visible portion is:
    1. adipose connective tissue.
    2. loose connective tissue.
    3. dense fibrous connective tissue.
    4. nervous tissue.
    5. epithelial tissue.
       
  13. The hidden posterior surface of the iris is:
    1. adipose connective tissue.
    2. loose connective tissue.
    3. dense fibrous connective tissue.
    4. nervous tissue.
    5. epithelial tissue (a continuation of the pigmented epithelium).
       
  14. The ciliary body of the eye is an anterior region of the choroid layer which consists largely of:
    1. collagen.
    2. smooth muscle.
    3. aqueous humor.
    4. vitreous humor.
    5. parasympathetic ganglion cells.
       
  15. The fluid immediately beneath the cornea (i.e., between the cornea and the lens) is called:
    1. aqueous humor.
    2. vitreous humor.
    3. endolymph.
    4. perilymph.
    5. CSF.
       
  16. Aqueous humor is actively secreted by cells of the:
    1. cornea.
    2. stria vascularis.
    3. iris.
    4. ciliary processes.
    5. ependyma.
       
  17. Aqueous humor drains away from the anterior chamber through connective tissue spaces at the limbus called the:
    1. canal of Schlemm.
    2. arachnoid granulations.
    3. ciliary processes.
    4. endolymphatic duct.
    5. stria vascularis.
       
  18. An imbalance between production and drainage of aqueous humor can cause:
    1. Ménière's disease.
    2. astigmatism.
    3. presbyopia.
    4. glaucoma.
    5. hydrocephalus.
       
  19. The cells which secrete aqueous humor represent an extension of which layer?
    1. corneal epithelium
    2. corneal endothelium
    3. sclera
    4. pigmented epithelium
    5. neural retina
       
  20. Which of the following components of the eye does NOT include connective tissue as a major component?
    1. cornea
    2. sclera
    3. choroid
    4. iris
    5. lens
       
  21. As is evident from its embryological origin, the lens consists of which tissue type?
    1. epithelial tissue
    2. connective tissue
    3. nervous tissue
    4. muscle tissue
         
  22. Which layer of the retina contains rods and cones?  (Layers are listed from outside inward toward the vitreous.)
    1. pigmented epithelium
    2. receptor layer
    3. outer nuclear layer
    4. outer plexiform layer
    5. inner nuclear layer
    6. inner plexiform layer
    7. ganglion cell layer
    8. nerve fiber layer
       
  23. Which layer of the retina contains nuclei of photoreceptor cells? 
    1. pigmented epithelium
    2. receptor layer
    3. outer nuclear layer
    4. outer plexiform layer
    5. inner nuclear layer
    6. inner plexiform layer
    7. ganglion cell layer
    8. nerve fiber layer
       
  24. Which layer of the retina contains nuclei of bipolar cells? 
    1. pigmented epithelium
    2. receptor layer
    3. outer nuclear layer
    4. outer plexiform layer
    5. inner nuclear layer
    6. inner plexiform layer
    7. ganglion cell layer
    8. nerve fiber layer
       
  25. Which layer of the retina contains synapses between photoreceptor cells and bipolar cells?
    1. pigmented epithelium
    2. receptor layer
    3. outer nuclear layer
    4. outer plexiform layer
    5. inner nuclear layer
    6. inner plexiform layer
    7. ganglion cell layer
    8. nerve fiber layer
       
  26. Which layer of the retina contains the blood vessels which serve the neural retina? 
    1. pigmented epithelium
    2. receptor layer
    3. outer nuclear layer
    4. outer plexiform layer
    5. inner nuclear layer
    6. inner plexiform layer
    7. ganglion cell layer
    8. nerve fiber layer
       
  27. Which layer of the retina is responsible for absorbing stray light and prevents back-reflection? 
    1. pigmented epithelium
    2. receptor layer
    3. outer nuclear layer
    4. outer plexiform layer
    5. inner nuclear layer
    6. inner plexiform layer
    7. ganglion cell layer
    8. nerve fiber layer
       
  28. Which layer of the retina recycles photoreceptor components? 
    1. pigmented epithelium
    2. receptor layer
    3. outer nuclear layer
    4. outer plexiform layer
    5. inner nuclear layer
    6. inner plexiform layer
    7. ganglion cell layer
    8. nerve fiber layer
       
  29. Which layer of the retina contains axons which travel through the optic nerve? 
    1. pigmented epithelium
    2. receptor layer
    3. outer nuclear layer
    4. outer plexiform layer
    5. inner nuclear layer
    6. inner plexiform layer
    7. ganglion cell layer
    8. nerve fiber layer
       
  30. Not counting the photoreceptor layer itself, through how many of the layers listed in the above questions must light travel before it reaches the photoreceptor layer? 
    1. one
    2. two
    3. three
    4. four
    5. five
    6. six
    7. none (photoreceptors are encountered first)
       
  31. Which of the following retinal layers is closest to the outside (sclera) of the eyeball?
    1. pigmented epithelium
    2. receptor layer
    3. outer plexiform layer
    4. ganglion cell layer
    5. nerve fiber layer
       
  32. Which is the first layer of the retina encountered by light that has entered through the pupil?
    1. pigmented epithelium
    2. receptor layer
    3. outer plexiform layer
    4. ganglion cell layer
    5. nerve fiber layer
         

 


QUESTION SET VI.  Ear.  Multiple choice.     [reference:  http://www.siumed.edu/~dking2/ssb/ear.htm]

Point to an answer.  Green color and bold indicates "CORRECT."  Red color and italics indicates "Wrong answer."  (NOTE:  In cases where all of the responses are correct, only "all of the above" will be indicated as correct.)

     [An mp3 file of this question set has been recorded by SIUC Anthropology student M. Campbell.]

  1. Hair cells of the ear are:
    1. columnar mechanoreceptor cells.
    2. cuboidal cells of the stria vascularis.
    3. bipolar neurons of the spiral ganglion.
    4. bipolar neurons of the vestibular ganglion.
    5. ciliated cells of the eustachian tube.
       
  2. Hair cells are found in ALL of the following locations EXCEPT:
    1. maculae of saccule.
    2. maculae of utricle.
    3. ampullae of semicircular canals.
    4. organ of Corti.
    5. stria vascularis.
       
  3. The membranous labyrinth comprises ALL of the followine EXCEPT:
    1. saccule.
    2. utricle.
    3. semicircular canals.
    4. scala media.
    5. scala tympani.
       
  4. The membranous labyrinth is filled with:
    1. lymph.
    2. endolymph.
    3. perilymph.
    4. aqueous humor.
    5. CSF.
       
  5. The fluid environment for hair cells is:
    1. lymph.
    2. endolymph.
    3. perilymph.
    4. aqueous humor.
    5. CSF.
       
  6. Endolymph is actively secreted by cells of the:
    1. cornea.
    2. stria vascularis.
    3. iris.
    4. ciliary processes.
    5. ependyma.
       
  7. The stria vascularis is located in the:
    1. saccule.
    2. scala vestibuli.
    3. scala media.
    4. scala tympani.
    5. utricle.
       
  8. Which of the following contains endolymph?
    1. canal of Schlemm.
    2. scala vestibuli.
    3. scala media.
    4. scala tympani.
    5. eustachian tube.
       
  9. Endolymph can drain away from the membranous labyrinth through a passage called the:
    1. canal of Schlemm.
    2. arachnoid granulations.
    3. scala media.
    4. endolymphatic duct.
    5. eustacian tube.
       
  10. An imbalance between production and drainage of endolymph may cause:
    1. Ménière's disease.
    2. astigmatism.
    3. presbyopia.
    4. glaucoma.
    5. hydrocephalus.
       
  11. Damage to hair cells in the organ of Corti would be expected to have a direct effect on:
    1. balance / vertigo.
    2. hearing.
    3. production of endolymph.
    4. production of perilymph.
       
  12. Disturbance of hair cells in the ampulla of a semicircular canal would be expected to have a direct effect on:
    1. balance / vertigo.
    2. hearing.
    3. production of endolymph.
    4. production of perilymph.
       
  13. Disturbance of hair cells in a macula of the saccule would be expected to have a direct effect on:
    1. balance / vertigo.
    2. hearing.
    3. production of endolymph.
    4. production of perilymph.
       
  14. Disturbance of hair cells in a macula of the utricle would be expected to have a direct effect on:
    1. balance / vertigo.
    2. hearing.
    3. production of endolymph.
    4. production of perilymph.
       
  15. Perilymph fills the:
    1. scala media (cochlear duct).
    2. spaces of the bony labyrinth external to the membranous labyrinth.
    3. middle ear.
    4. saccule and utricle.
    5. endolymphatic duct.
       
  16. Which of the following contains perilymph?
    1. canal of Schlemm.
    2. scala vestibuli.
    3. scala media.
    4. stria vascularis.
    5. eustachian tube.
       
  17. Otoliths are normally found in the:
    1. saccule and utricle.
    2. ampullae of semicircular canals.
    3. scala media (cochlear duct).
    4. scala vestibuli.
    5. scala tympani.
       
  18. A crista with a cupola is a normal feature in the:
    1. saccule and utricle.
    2. ampulla of each semicircular canal.
    3. scala media (cochlear duct).
    4. scala vestibuli.
    5. scala tympani.
       
  19. The basalar and tectorial membranes are most closely associated with:
    1. secreting endolymph.
    2. reabsorbing endolymph.
    3. sensing linear acceleration of the head (i.e., gravity).
    4. sensing angular acceleration of the head.
    5. sensing vibratory stimuli (sound).
       
  20. In the organ of Corti, apical projections of hair cells (cilia and stereocilia) are in intimate contact with:
    1. Reissner's membrane.
    2. Decemet's membrane.
    3. the basilar membrane.
    4. the tectorial membrane.
    5. ciliary processes.
       
  21. Hair cells in the organ of Corti synapse onto nerve fibers whose cell bodies are located in the:
    1. vestibular ganglion.
    2. spiral ganglion.
    3. cochlear nuclei.
    4. vestibular nuclei.
    5. thalamus.
       
  22. Reissner's membrane separates the scala media from the:
    1. scala vestibuli.
    2. scala tympani.
    3. vestibule.
    4. eustachian tube.
    5. mastoid air cells.
       
  23. The basilar membrane separates the scala media from the:
    1. scala vestibuli.
    2. scala tympani.
    3. vestibule.
    4. eustachian tube.
    5. mastoid air cells.
       
  24. The round window separates the middle ear from the:
    1. scala vestibuli.
    2. scala tympani.
    3. scala media (cochlear duct).
    4. eustachian tube.
    5. mastoid air cells.
       
  25. The middle ear communicates via the eustachian tube with the:
    1. posterior fossa.
    2. vestibule.
    3. nasopharynx.
    4. endolymphatic sac.
    5. external auditory meatus (ear canal).

 

 

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Last updated:  6 May 2013 / dgk